The clause in question is Article I, section 8 as you noted. We refer to it as the Interstate Commerce clause because it allows Congress to regulate the exchange of goods across state lines and between the states and foreign countries. Yet, it says nothing about regulating the exchange or sale of goods solely within a single state. In the case mentioned, Gonzales v. Raich (2005), there was no interstate commerce (Ivers, 2013). The plants were grown and used solely within the state of California. Where does the federal government have the power to regulate intrastate trade per the Constitution?
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